JEE Main 2014_Test 7 (Paper I) Code A

7/26/2019 JEE Main 2014_Test 7 (Paper I) Code A

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Roll No.:

Centre Code:

TEST No. 7

Test Date:

Test Booklet Code

JEE (Main) 2014

for

ALL

IND

IAAA

KASHTEST

SERIE

S

PAPER - I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE1. Readeach question carefully.

2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken theappropriate circle in the answer sheet.

3. Mark shouldbe dark andshould completely fill thecircle.

4. Rough work must notbe done on theanswer sheet.

5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material onanswer sheet.

6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any othermaterial in the examination hall.

7. Before attempting the question paper, student shouldensure that the test paper contains all pages and no pageis missing.

8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code andDate of Birth havebeen filled and marked correctly.

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,the answersheetto be returned to theinvigilator.

There are parts in the question paper A, B and Cconsisting of , andhaving 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Eachquestion is allotted 4 marks for each correctresponse.

three

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

(four)

10.

11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximummarks are360.

12. One fourth () marks will be deducted for indicatingincorrect response of each question. No deduction fromthe total score will be made if no response is indicated foranyquestion in theanswer sheet.

13. Patternof the questions areas under:

Section I : Straight ObjectiveType Questions

Section II : Assertion ReasonType Questions

0 9 / 0 2 / 2 0 1 4


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TOPICS OF THE TEST

Test No. 7

PhysicsRay Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation

and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductor Electronics : Materials, Devices

and SimpleCircuits, Communication Systems, Units& Measurements

Chemistry Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules,

Polymers, Chemistry in EverydayLife

Mathematics Differential Equations, Vector Algebra, 3-D Geometry (XI & XII), Probability

(XI & XII), Statistics

Paper I


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Space for Rough Work

Test - 7 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

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PART - A (PHYSICS)

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type Questions

This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer :

1. A slab of thickness 10 cm is kept on x-y plane(z = 0) and its refractive index varies as

1.63 120z

where z is in cm. If it is viewed

from top, its apparant thickness will be (in cm)3 1.63

Given ln2 4

(1) 5 (2) 6

(3) 4 (4) 3

2. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror along aline represented by i j k . The possible vectororientation parallel to the plane of the mirror to getthe light retraced is

(1) i j k (2) 2i+j 2k

(3) i j k (4) 2 4 2i j k

3. A concave mirror of radius of curvature 80 cm isplaced at the bottom of a tank containing water uptoa height 20 cm. The mirror faces upwards with itsaxis vertical. Solar light falls normally on the surfaceof water and the image of the sun is formed. if

43

, then with the observer in air the distance of

image from the surface of water is

TEST - 7 (Paper-1)Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

(1) 30 cm above (2) 15 cm above

(3) 120 cm above (4) 7.5 cm below4. A plano convex lens f its exactly into a plano

concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel toeach other. If the lenses are made of differentmaterials of refractive indices 1and 2and Ris theradius of curvature of the curved surface of thelenses, then focal length of the combination is

(1)1 2

R

(2) 2 1

2R

(3)1 22( )

R

(4)1 22 ( )

R

5. A ray incident at a point at an angle of incidence of

60 enters a glass sphere of 3 and is reflected

and refracted at the farther surface of the sphere. Theangle between the reflected and refracted rays atthis surface is

(1) 50 (2) 90

(3) 60 (4) 40

6. A spherical glass bulb of diameter d is filled with

water

4

3 . The bulb is viewed along its

horizontal diameter. What is the apparent diameter?(Neglect the thickness of glass)

(1) 2d (2)32d

(3)2d

(4)74d


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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 7 (Paper-I)

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7. A point object is moving on the principal axis of aconcave mirror of focal length 24 cm towards it.When it is at a distance of 60 cm from the mirror,velocity is 9 cm/s. What is the velocity of the imageat that instant?

(1) 5 cm/s towards mirror

(2) 4 cm/s towards mirror

(3) 4 cm/s away from mirror

(4) 9 cm/s away from mirror

8. The K

line has a wavelength for an element withatomic number Z = 19. The K

line will have a

wavelength4

for an element with atomic number Z =

(1) 38 (2) 10

(3) 11 (4) 37

9. Plane parallel wavefronts encounter the interface

between one medium and another, as shown below(lines represent crest). The wave speed is different inthe two media. Choose the correct option

Interface

Medium-2Medium-1

(1) The distance between wavefronts remainsunchanged but the direction of wavefrontchanges

(2) The distance between wavefronts and thedirection of wavefront both remain unchanged

(3) The distance between wavefronts and thedirection of wavefront both changes

(4) The distance between wavefronts changes butthe direction of wavefront remains unchanged

10. Two wavelengths are used in YDSE. If one is 430 nmand the fourth order bright fringe coincides with thesixth order bright fringe of the other, then the otherwavelength is nearly

(1) 580 nm (2) 645 nm

(3) 747 nm (4) 287 nm

11. Figure shows two coherent microwave sources S1and S2emitting waves of wavelength and separatedby a distance 3. The minimum non-zero value of yfor point Pto be an intensity maximum is (D>>)

3

y

P

D

S1 S2

(1) D (2) 3 D

(3)5

2D (4) 2 2D

12. In a YDSE the separation between the slits is 1 mmand the screen is at a distance of 2 m from theplane of the slits. The wavelength missing on thescreen at a point directly in front of one of the

slits is(1) 417 nm (2) 500 nm

(3) 523 nm (4) 600 nm

13. A meson at rest decays into two photons. If restmass of meson is 135 MeV/c2, the wavelength(in fm) of each photon is

(1) 36.74 (2) 18.37

(3) 9.18 (4) 15


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14. A source emits e.m. waves of wavelength 2 m andintensity I0. One beam reaches the observer directlywhile other beam reaches after reflection from watersurface travelling an additional distance of 5 m and

with intensity reduced to49

as compared to the

direct beam. The resultant intensity observed will be

(1) 049I (2) 053

I

(3) 0259

I (4) 0139

I

15. Suppose the price of a radioactive substance isdirectly proportional to the activity of radioactivesample. If initial price of radioactive sample (t1/2= 6months) is Rs 4096, then price of radioactive sampleafter 5 years will be

(1) Rs 4 (2) Rs 8

(3) Rs 16 (4) Rs 409616. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is

plotted against wavelength as shown in figure. Theminimum wavelength found is

Cand wavelength of

K line is

K. As the accelerating voltage is

increased

C K

(1) K

Cincreases

(2) K

Cdecreases

(3) K increases

(4) Cincreases

17. In the following radioactive decay C is stablenucleus. Then

time = 0t

time t

N0

0 0

N1 N2 N3

A B C1 2

(1) Number of nuclei of B will first increases andthen decreases

(2) Rate of decay of Awill first increase and thendecrease

(3) If 2> 1then activity of Bwill always be higherthan activity of A

(4) If 1 >> 2 then number of nuclei of C willalways be less than number of nuclei of B

18. A proton moving with a speed udirectly towards an-particle (He nucleus) which, when the two particles

were very far apart from one another, was initially atrest. What is the separation of the particles at theirpoint of closest approach? (Assume m

= 4 m

P)

(1)2

20 P

er

m u

(2)2

204 P

er

m u

(3)2

20

54 P

er

m u

(4)2

20

58 P

erm u

19. If work function of a metal is 3 eV and wavelength ofsubjected radiation to the metal is 275 nm. Then thede-Broglie's wavelength (in ) of photoelectrons emittedby the metal is nearly (Given hc= 1240 eV nm)

(1) 1.5 (2) 1

(3) 10 (4) 100


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20. In the diagram below, light is incident on the interfacebetween 1 and 2 at the critical angle, and is totallyreflected. The light is then also totally reflected at theinterface between media 1 and 3, after which it travelsin the direction opposite to the initial direction. Thetwo interfaces are best perpendicular. The refractiveindices are best related as

Medium-3

Medium-2

Medium-1n1

n2

n3

(1) n1< n2< n3(2) n1

2+ n32n2

2

(3) n12 n2

2n32

(4) n12+ n2

2n32

21. The first excitation potential for H-atom is

(1) 13.6 V (2) 10.2 V

(3) 3.4 V (4) 12.27 V

22. A transistor is used in common emitter mode in anamplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is addedto the base emitter voltage, the base currentchanges by 20 A and the collector current changesby 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 k. The value oftrans ductance is

(1) 10 1 (2) 1 1

(3) 0.1 1 (4) 0.01 1

23. A TV transmission tower at a particular station hasa height 160 m. By how much the height of tower beincreased to double its coverage range? Given radiusof earth = 6400 km.

(1) 320 m (2) 160 m

(3) 480 m (4) 640 m

24. A terrestrial telescope has an objective of focal length180 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. Theerecting lens has a focal length of 3.5 cm. Theseparation between objective and eyepiece in normaladjustment is

(1) 167 cm (2) 179 cm

(3) 199 cm (4) 213 cm

25. Plane microwaves are incident on a long slit havinga width of 5.0 cm. The wavelength of the microwavesif the first diffraction minimum is formed at = 30is

(1) 2.5 cm (2) 0.25 cm

(3) 25 cm (4) 1.25 cm

SECTION - II

Assertion Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-

Reason type questions. Each of these questionscontains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

answer. You have to select the correct choice.

26. Statement-1 : A person standing on the edge of aswimming pool is observed shorter than his usuallength as observed by someone from inside water.

and

Statement-2 : A ray bends towards the normal as itenters from rarer medium to denser medium.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is a correct explanation forStatement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation forStatement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


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27. Statement-1 : The kinetic energy of emitted particles is not equal to the Qvalue of emissionnuclear reaction.

and

Statement-2 : The daughter nucleus recoils toconserve the linear momentum when -particle is

emitted in -decay.





28. Statement-1 : A small metallic ball is suspended ina uniform electric field with an insulated thread. Ifhigh energy X-ray beam fall on the ball, ball will bedeflected along the direction of electric field.

and

Statement-2 : X-ray emits photoelectron from anisolated metallic surface, leaving it positivelycharged.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation forStatement-1




29. Statement-1 : Soft and hard X-rays differ in

frequency as well as velocity.

and

Statement-2 : The penetrating power of hard X-rays

is more than the penetrating power of soft X-rays.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1



30. Statement-1 : If the frequency of incident light on aphotosensitive surface is doubled, the maximum KE

of emitted photoelectrons becomes double.

and

Statement-2 : If the distance of point source from the

surface is doubled, then photocurrent becomes one

fourth of the original current.




Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1




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This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31.OH

Conc.

CHO

mixture of product. What is the

equivalent mass of benzaldehyde in this reaction?

(1) 106 g (2) 212 g

(3) 53 g (4) Infinite

32. Rate of nucleophilic addition reaction is maximumamong the following for

(1)O

(2)

O

(3)

O

(4)

O

CH3

33. CH3CHOI2

NaOH product. In product formation

which of the following has highest rate of thereaction?

(1) First iodination

(2) Second iodination

(3) Third iodination

(4) All have identical rate

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)

34. O

H

+ H2 3NCH A + Bappropriate

pH

Which of the following is true for (A) and (B)?

(1) A is major product and syn oriented

(2) B is minor product and syn oriented(3) A is major product and anti oriented

(4) No such orientations are alloted to (A) and (B)

35.O

O

H

H

dil OH

A (major product)

Which is true about (A)?

(1) A has acidic proton and loss of it can formaromatic compound

(2) A does not have any acidic proton

(3) A on ozonolysis forms di carbonyl compound(4) A has 4bonds in its structure

36. Two compounds (X) and (Y) isomers of each otherare put up into following test as

X Y

DNP test Positive Positive

Fehling test Positive Negative

Tollen's test Positive Positive

Iodoform test Negative Negative

If general formula of (X) and (Y) is C8H8O and (Y)

after Clemenson reduction can only forms oneelectrophilic substituted product then which of thefollowing is true for (X) and (Y)?

(1) (X) on oxidation with KMnO4forms benzoic acidderivative

(2) (Y) on oxidation with KMnO4 forms terphthalicacid

(3) (X) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative

(4) (Y) on reduction with LAH forms phenol derivative


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37.

O

Br(i) Mg/Dry ether

(ii) H O2

H

A (major product)

(1)

OH

(2) Polyalcohol

(3)O OH

(CH2 5) (CH2 4)CH3

H

(4) Polyaldehyde

38.

O

H

O

, the IUPAC naming of the given

compound is

(1) 5 - ketopentan - 2 - one

(2) 4 - ketopentan -1-al

(3) 4 - formylbutan - 2 - one

(4) 4 - carbonylpentan - 1 - al

39. Which of the following compound is more acidic thanbenzoic acid?

(1) Formic acid (2) Tolulic acid

(3) Ethanoic acid (4) Propanoic acid

40. Which among the following has highest rate ofdecarboxylation?

(1)

O

O OH

H

(2)

O

O

CH3

OH

(3)O

HO

OH (4)OH

O

41. Towards neucleophilic substitution reaction which ofthe following produces product with highest rate?

(1)O

OH(2)

O

Cl

(3)O O

O(4)

O

O

42.

O

O dil

H SO2 4A(major product)

(A) does not give which of the following test?

(1) Effervescence with NaHCO3(2) Tollen's test

(3) Victor Mayer test

(4) Evolution of H2on adding Na

43. Which of the following compound on completehydrolysis form benzoic acid as one of the products?

(1)

CONH2

(2)

CN

(3)

C C = O

OO

(4) All of these

44. In which of the following case Gabriel phthalimidesynthesis has fastest rate?

(1) CH3Br (2) Br

(3) Br (4) Br


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45. Which of the following compound with Hinsbergreagent make soluble compound in KOH (aq)?

(1) NH2 (2)N

H

(3)N

(4)N+

X

46. Which of the following combination is mostfavourable for azo dye test?

(1) O N2 , OH N N+

(2) NH2 , HO N N+

(3) H N2 , N N+

(4) N

CH3

CH3

, O N2 N N+

47. Which of the following is equivalently basic as KOH,in water?

(1) CH3NH2 (2) (CH3)2NH

(3) (CH3)3N (4)

3 4CH NOH

48. Which of the following give Tollen's reagent test?

(1) NH2 (2) NHOH

(3) NO (4) NO2

49. Dacron is an example of

(1) Step growth polymer

(2) Copolymer

(3) Condensation polymer

(4) All of these

50. Which of the following is an example ofhomopolymerisation?

(1) Nylon - 6, 6 (2) Nylon - 2, 6

(3) Nylon - 6 (4) Dacron

51. If lysine is put in pH = 1 solution then which of thefollowing is present in solution?

(1) H3N CH COOH

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2

+

(2) H2N CH COOH

CH2 CH2CH2 CH2

NH3+

(3) H3N CH COO

CH2 CH2CH2CH2NH3+

+

(4) H3N CH COOH

CH2 CH2CH2 CH2NH3+

+

52. Which of the following amino acid is not a non-essential amino acid?

(1) Arginine (2) Leucine

(3) Glycine (4) Lysine

53. If glucose and galactose are used to producedisaccharide then which of the following glycosidiclinkage form non reducing sugar?

(1) C1 C4 (2) C1 C1

(3) C1 C6 (4) C2 C154. Minimum number of carbon atoms present in a

carbohydrate is

(1) 5 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 6

55. Aspartame is an example of

(1) Sweetener (2) Analgesic

(3) Soap (4) Antipyretic


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SECTION - IIAssertion Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Each of these questionscontains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) andStatement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also hasfour alternative choices, only one of which is the correctanswer. You have to select the correct choice.

56. Statement-1 : On strong heating HCOOH fumes intoair completely without any residue.

and

Statement-2 : HCOOH is a monoprotic acid.




(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True57. Statement-1 : Secondary & Tertiary structure of

protein represent the biologically active form ofprotein.

and

Statement-2 : Primary structure of protein onlypredict the sequencing of amino acids in theformation of polypeptide.(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;



(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

58. Statement-1 : DiBAL H is used to produce iminefrom nitrile.

and

Statement -2 : Hydrolysis of imine producesaldehyde.




(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True59. Statement-1 : In water CH3NH2 is more basic than

(CH3)3N.

and

Statement-2 :3 3CH NH

due to less steric

hinderence of methyl group cause better H-bondingwith H2O.





60. Statement-1 : Teflon is used in non stickcoating.

and

Statement-2 : Teflon is an addition polymer.






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This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. The means of five observations is 4 and theirvariance is 5.2. If three of the observations are 1, 2and 6, then the other two are

(1) 2 and 9 (2) 3 and 8

(3) 4 and 7 (4) 5 and 6

62. Sri Lanka cricket captain lost the toss of a coin 13times out of 14. The chance of this happening was

(1) 7/213 (2) 131

2

(3) 13/214 (4) 13/213

63. A determinant is chosen at random from the set ofall determinant of order 2 with elements 0, 1 or 2.Find the probability that the value of determinantchosen is zero

(1)3581

(2)3181

(3)3281

(4)5081

64. A square is given in the co-ordinate system with

vertices (100, 100), (100, 100), (100, 100) and(100, 100). A point inside or lying on the square isselected with integral co-ordinates say (x, y). The

probability that x.yis a number ending with 3 isa

b,

where aand bare co-primes, then a+ bis

(1) 40501 (2) 40401

(3) 40601 (4) 41201

65. Given 2 3 , 2A i j k B i j k

and

3C i j

.

D is normal to both

A and

B. The

angle between of

Cand

D is 1cos30

a . Then a

is

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 1 (4) 2

66. A line segment has length 63 and direction ratios

3, 2, 6 . If the line makes an obtuse angle with

x-axis, then the components of the vector are

(1) 27, 18, 54 (2) 27, 18, 54

(3) 27, 18, 54 (4) 27, 18, 54

67.^

2 2 2 ( ) ( ) ( )p i p j p k

, where | | 4p

, is equal

to

(1) 16 (2) 32

(3) 48 (4) 64

68. If is parallel toa b c

then

( ).( ) ( ).( ( ))a b a c a b a b c

is equal to

(1) 2| | ( . )a b c

(2) 2| | ( . )b a c

(3) 2| | ( . )c a b (4) 2| |( . )a b c

69. If a number is selected out of the {15, 115, 215, 315,..... 1515}. The probability that it is a divisor of 100!is

(1)23

(2)9

16

(3) 1 (4)58

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)


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70. 2 2| | | |

is equal to

(1) 4

(2) 0

(3) 4 .

(4) 2 .

71. The differential equation ( ) '( )f x dy y f x y dx is

changed in the form ( , ) 0d x y , then ( , )x y is

(1)( )2

f xy (2)

( )f xx

y

(3)( )f x

xy

(4)( )f xy

72. The solution of the equation

sin' cot

2x y

y xy

given y= 1 when

2x

is

(1) y2= sin x (2) y2= 2 sin x

(3) x2= sin y (4) x2= 2 sin y

73. Order and degree of the differential equation

satisfying 2 21 1 ( ) x y a x y is

(1) 1 and 1 (2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 1 (4) 1 and not defined

74. The general solution of the differential equation

sin sin2 2

dy x y x y

dx is

(1) log tan 2sin2 y c x

(2) log tan 2sin4 2y x

c

(3) log tan 2sin2 4

yc x

(4) log tan 2sin4 4 4

y xc

75. If 3 ( ) '( )f x f x and (0) 4f then (2)f equals

(1) 4.e4 (2) 3.e6

(3) 2.e4 (4) 4.e6

76. The vectors such that . 2A X

and A X B

where A

and B

are non zero perpendicular vectors.

Then X

is

(1) 22

| |

A A B

A

(2) 2| |

A A B

A

(3) 22

2 | |

A A B

A

(4) 22( )

| |

A A B

A

77. The equation of the family of curves which intersects

the hyperbola 4xy orthogonally is

(1) y=3

8x

c (2) y=3

4x

c

(3) y=3

12x

c (4) y=3

16x

c

78. If a variable takes discrete values x + 4,

7 5 1 1, , 3, 2, , , 5

2 2 2 2 x x x x x x x (x > 0),

then the mean deviation about median is

(1)52

(2)54

(3) 2 (4) 3

79. If A and B are two independent events such that

2( )

15P A B and

1( )

6P A B , then P(B) is

(1)15

(2)16

(3)25

(4)56


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80. If one natural number is selected at random from1 to 100. The probability that their sum of digits isprime is

(1)33

100(2)

35100

(3)

37

100 (4)

38

100

81. The vectors ,

c a xi yj zk and

b j are such

that ,

a c and

b form a right handed system then

ccan be

(1) zi xk (2)

o

(3) yj (4) zi yk

82. If| |a

=1 where a

is a position vector. If a vector a

is selected at random. Find the probability that

0, 0, 0x y z (where a

= xi yj zk )

(1)12

(2)14

(3)18

(4)1

16

83. The equation of the curve passing through13

,13

the differential equation 21dx

ydy y

is

(1) 3y3+ 29y+ 6xy= 6

(2) 3y3+ 29y 6xy= 6

(3) 3y3+ 29y+ 6xy+ 6 = 0

(4) 3y3 29y 6xy 6 = 0

84. Consider the points A(5, 1, 1), B(7, 4, 7),C(1, 6, 10) and D(1, 3, 4). Then ABCDis

(1) A square (2) A rhombus

(3) A rectangle (4) Not a plane figure

85.

1 1 1 2

1 2 2 2

L L L L

L L L L

is equal to

(1) 21 2| |L L

(2) 1 2| |L L

(3) 21 2( . )L L

(4)

1 2.L L

SECTION - II

Assertion Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion-

Reason type questions. Each of these questionscontains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

answer. You have to select the correct choice.

86. Statement-1 : The differential equation of all circlesin a plane must be of order 3.

and

Statement-2 : If three points are non-collinear and liein a plane, then only one circle always pass throughthese points.






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87. Statement-1 : If A& Bare exhaustive events

and1 1 1 1

( ) , ( ) ( ) 12 2 2 2

P A P B P A B .

and

Statement-2 : If A& Bare exhaustive events

P(AB) = P(A) + P(B).(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;





88. Statement-1 :If | |a

=1 then a

will always represent

a circle.

and

Statement-2 : x2+ y2= 1 is the equation of a circle.




89. Statement-1 : From the point P(1, 1,1), the normaldrawn to planes yz and zx are PA, PB, then theequation of plane OAB is x + y z= 0.

and

Statement-2 : From the point P (a, b, c) where atleast two of a, b, care non zero, the normals drawnto planes yzand zxare PA, PB,then the equation

of plane OAB is bcx + acy abz=0.(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;





90. Statement-1 : If A and B are independent events

then ( ) ( / ). ( / )P A B P A B P B A .and

Statement-2 : If A and B are independent events

then ( ) ( ) ( )P A B P A P B .





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Test - 6 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

1/11

ANSWERS

1. (4)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (2)

5. (1)

6. (3)

7. (4)

8. (3)

9. (2)

10. (4)

11. (3)

12. (3)

13. (3)

14. (1)

15. (2)

16. (1)

17. (1)

18. (4)

19. (1)

20. (1)

21. (1)

22. (2)

23. (1)

24. (3)

25. (1)

26. (2)

27. (4)

28. (2)

29. (1)

30. (2)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

31. (1)

32. (3)

33. (2)

34. (4)

35. (3)

36. (2)

37. (3)

38. (3)

39. (3)

40. (1)

41. (2)

42. (4)

43. (1)

44. (3)

45. (2)

46. (3)

47. (4)

48. (4)

49. (3)

50. (2)

51. (3)

52. (2)

53. (1)

54. (4)

55. (2)

56. (2)

57. (4)

58. (3)

59. (4)

60. (3)

61. (2)

62. (2)

63. (3)

64. (4)

65. (3)

66. (1)

67. (3)

68. (2)

69. (1)

70. (3)

71. (2)

72. (3)

73. (2)

74. (4)

75. (4)

76. (2)

77. (3)

78. (4)

79. (3)

80. (2)

81. (3)

82. (3)

83. (4)

84. (4)

85. (2)

86. (1)

87. (1)

88. (3)

89. (4)

90. (3)

TEST - 6 (Paper-I)

JEE Main 2014_Test 7 (Paper I) Code A

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Transcript of JEE Main 2014_Test 7 (Paper I) Code A