JEE Main-2014_Test-6 (Paper-I) - Code-A.pdf

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    Roll No.:

    Centre Code:

    TEST No. 6

    Test Date:

    Test Booklet Code 

    JEE (Main) 2014

     for 

          A      L      L

         I    N   D

        I  A A A

     K ASH  T  E  S  T   

    S    E    R    I      E     

    S      

    PAPER - I

    INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE1. Readeach question carefully.

    2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken theappropriate circle in the answer sheet.

    3. Mark shouldbe dark andshould completely fill thecircle.

    4. Rough work must notbe done on theanswer sheet.

    5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material onanswer sheet.

    6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

    7. Before attempting the question paper, student shouldensure that the test paper contains all pages and no pageis missing.

    8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code andDate of Birth havebeen filled and marked correctly.

    9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,the answersheetto be returned to theinvigilator.

    There are parts in the question paper A, B and Cconsisting of , andhaving 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Eachquestion is allotted 4 marks for each correctresponse.

    three

    Physics Chemistry Mathematics

    (four)

    10.

    11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximummarks are360.

    12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicatingincorrect response of each question. No deduction fromthe total score will be made if no response is indicated for anyquestion in theanswer sheet.

    13. Patternof the questions areas under:

    Section – I : Straight ObjectiveType Questions

    Section – II : Assertion– ReasonType Questions

    0 2 / 0 2 / 2 0 1 4

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    TOPICS OF THE TEST

    Test No. 6

    Physics  Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism & Matter, Electromagnetic

    Induction,Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves

    ChemistryOrganic Chemistry (Some Basic Principles and Techniques),

    Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes,

    Alcohols, Phenols andEthers

    Mathematics   Application of Derivatives, Integrals, Applications of Integrals

    Paper I

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    PART - A (PHYSICS)

    SECTION - IStraight Objective Type Questions

    This section contains 25 multiple choice questions

    numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

    (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    Choose the correct answer :

    1. Which one of the following circulation is correct?

    i 1

    X   i 2

    C 1

      C 2

    C 3

    (1)

    1

    0 1.C 

    B dl i   ∫  

    (2)

    2

    0 2.C 

    B dl i   ∫  

    (3)

    3

    0 2 1. ( ) ∫  

    B dl i i  

    (4)

    3

    0 1 2. ( )C 

    B dl i i   ∫     

    TEST - 6 (Paper-1)Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 360

    2. Figure shows a regular hexagon made of uniform

    wire. If a battery is connected across the ends AB ,magnetic field at O   is B 0. If the same battery is

    connected across A and C , the magnetic field at O 

    will be

    O F    C 

    A B 

    D E 

    (1) Equal to B 0

    (2) Greater than B 0(3) Less than B 0

    (4) May be less or greater than B 0

    3. Figure shows two coils carrying equal currents. The

    ratio of magnetic field at P  due to coil-1 to coil-2 is

    2R R 

    2

    1

    P i 

    (1)1

    2(2) 1 : 2

    (3)1

    4(4)

    1

    41

    2

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    4. The arrangement shown here is a Faraday's disc of

    radius a which is rotating in a uniform magnetic field

    B   perpendicular to the plane of disc. The current

    passing through the resistance is

    (1)2B a

    (2)

    2

    2

    B a

    (3)

    2

    2

    B a

    (4)2B a

    5. In the cylindrical region shown, magnetic field is

    diminishing at the rate of (T/s). The force on theelectron at a distance r  along y -axis is

    e   P 

     

    (1) ˆ( )2

    r e i  (2) ˆ( )

    2

    r e i 

    (3)2

    ˆ( )2

    r e i  (4)

    2ˆ( )

    2

    r e i 

    6. A solenoid has an inductance L and a resistance R .

    If the solenoid is connected to a battery, the time it

    will take to reach half of its final equilibrium value is

    (1) ln22

    L

    R (2)

    2ln3

    L

    (3) ln2LR 

    (4) ln3LR 

    7. A wire forms a closed circular loop of radius 2 m and

    resistance 6 . The circle is centred on a long

    straight wire. (The straight wire is insulated). The

    current changes according to i   = (5 – 2 t 2)A.

    The magnitude of current induced in the loop at

    t  = 1 s is

    (1) 1 A (2) 2 A

    (3) 3 A (4) Zero

    8. Wire AB   is moved with a velocity 2 m/s. Wire is

    kept near a long current carrying conductor, as

    shown. Emf induced in the wire is

    (1) 0 ln32

    (2) 05

    ln32

     

    3 m

    5 A

    2 m/s

    B A

    1 m

    (3)05 ln3

    (4) Zero

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    9. EMF of the battery shown in the circuit varies withtime, so that the current is given by i   = 3 + 5t ,where i   is in ampere and t   is in second. Theexpression for battery emf as a function of time is

    R  = 4

    L = 6 H

    (1) 10t  + 32

    (2) 20t  + 42

    (3) 20t  + 18

    (4) 10t  + 22

    10. The current density J  inside a long, solid cylindrical

    wire of radius a  is along central axis and its

    magnitude varies linearly with r   as 0r 

    J J a

    . The

    magnetic field at2

    ar     is

    (1)0 0

    3

    J a(2) 0 0

    6

    J a

    (3)0 0

    9

    J a(4)

    0 0

    12

    J a

    11. An ideal choke takes a current of 8 A whenconnected to an a.c. source of 100 V and 50 Hz. Apure resistance under the same conditions takes acurrent of 10 A. If two are connected in series to ana.c. supply of 100 V and 40 Hz, then current in thecircuit is

    (1) 10 A (2) 8 A

    (3) 5 2 A (4) 10 2 A

    12. I f a direct current of value "a" ampere issuperimposed on an ac i  = b sint  flowing through awire, the effective value of resulting current in thecircuit is

    (1)2

    b (2)

    2

    b a

    (3)

    2

    22

    b a   (4)

    2 2

    2

    a b 

    13. An electron moves in a uniform magnetic field andfollows a spiral path as shown in figure. Which of thefollowing statement is incorrect?

    (1) Angular velocity of electron remains constant

    (2) Magnitude of velocity of electron decreasescontinuously

    (3) Net force on the particle is always perpendicularto direction of motion

    (4) Magnitude of net force on the electrondecreases continuously

    14. A bar magnet is moved between two circular coils Aand B  with a constant velocity v  as shown. Then thecoils

    A B 

    (1) Repel each other

    (2) Attract each other

    (3) Neither attract nor repel each other

    (4) May attract or repel depending upon size of coils

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    15. Slider of length 1 m moves with velocity 2 m/s in auniform magnetic field of 2T. Resistance of the slideris 2 . The magnitude of external force required tomaintain the velocity is

    3 6   v 

    × B 

    (1) 1 N (2) 2 N

    (3) 4 N (4) 6 N

    16. A copper rod is bent into a semicircle of radius a andis being rotated with an angular velocity   in themagnetic field shown. Resistance of the circuit is

    negligible. Amplitude of current through the circuit is

    × B 

    O ×

    a   O 

    (1)2 21

    2 B a C 

    (2)2 21

    4Ba C 

    (3)2 21

    8Ba C 

    (4) 2 22 Ba C 

    17. A particle of mass m  and charge q  is released fromrest at the origin as shown in figure. The speed ofthe particle when it has travelled a distance d  alongthe z  axis is given by

    (1)02qE d 

    (2) 00

    E d B 

    E 0

    B 0

    m q ,

    (3)0

    qE d 

    (4)0

    2m 

    qE d 

    18. A magnetic needle of negligible width and thicknessas compared to its length oscillates in horizontalplane with period T . If it is broken into n  equal parts,then the time period of each part in same field

    will be

    (1) T n  (2) nT 

    (3)T 

    n (4)

    19. Current in R 3  just after closing the switch and insteady state respectively, will be

    R 1

    R 2

    R 3

    LE 

    (1) 0, 0 (2)3

    ,0E 

    (3)3

    0,E 

    R (4) Indeterminate

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    20. In the arrangement shown, maximum current that will

    flow in the circuit is

    (1) 06C 

    V L

    (2) 0C 

    V L

    – + + –4

    0V V 

    0

    L

    2C C 

    (3)0

    2 6

    V  L

    (4)0 6

    2

    V  C 

    L

    21. In the figure shown I L = 0.8 A and I 

    C  = 0.6 A. The

    current drawn from the source is

    L

    I L

    I C 

    I ~V 

    (1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A

    (3) 0.6 A (4) 1 A

    22. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A  and

    separation between the plates d, is charged by a

    constant current i . Consider a plane surface of area

    2

    A  parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically

    between plates. The displacement current through

    this area is

    (1) i  (2)2

    (3)4

    i (4) Zero

    23. An E.M. wave going through vacuum is described by

    E  = E 0sin(kx  – t ); B  = B 0sin(kx  – t ) then

    (1) E 0k  = B 0

    (2) E 0B 0  = k 

    (3) E 0  = B 0k 

    (4) E 0 = B 0

    24. A paramagnetic material is kept in a magnetic field.

    The field is increased till the magnetization becomes

    constant. If the temperature is now decreased, the

    magnetization

    (1) Will increase

    (2) Will decrease

    (3) Remains constant

    (4) May increase or decrease

    25. A toroid has a mean radius20

    cmR  

     and a total

    of 400 turns of wire carrying a current of 2 A.

    A metallic ring at 300 K inside the toroid provides

    the core. If the magnetization I   = 4.8 × 10–2 A/m,

    the susceptibility of metal at this temperature is

    (1) 2.4 × 10–5 (2) 4.2 × 10–5

    (3) 2.4 × 10–4 (4) 4.2 × 10–4

    SECTION - IIAssertion – Reason Type Questions

    Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion- 

    Reason type questions. Each of these questions 

    contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and 

    Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has 

    four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct 

    answer. You have to select the correct choice.

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    26. Statement-1 : Co-axial cable containing equal andopposite current in wire and hollow conductingcylinder is used to produce zero magnetic fieldsoutside the cable.

    and

    Statement-2 : Net current enclosed for the cable bya concentric outer circular loop is zero.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    27. Statement-1 : In an a.c. series circuit, the appliedinstantaneous voltage is not equal to the algebraicsum of instantaneous voltage across the differentelements of the circuit.

    and

    Statement-2 : The RMS voltage across differentelements are not in phase, only their phasor sum isequal to the applied RMS voltage.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    28. Consider two small elements of current carrying wire

    as shown.

    i 1

    i 2

    12

    Statement-1 : The force on 1 due to 2 is downwardsin the plane of paper but the force on 2 due to 1 iszero.

    and

    Statement-2 : Electromagnetic waves carrymomentum with them.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    29. An inductor is connected to a battery through aswitch.

    Statement-1 : The emf induced in the inductor ismuch larger when the switch is opened ascompared to the emf induced when the switch isclosed.

    and

    Statement-2 : When the switch is opened, the currentsuddenly tends to drop to zero. But when the switchis closed, due to finite resistance of the circuit, thecurrent does not suddenly build up to the maximumvalue.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    30. Statement-1 : In electromagnetic waves energy isequally shared between electric field and magneticfield.

    and

    Statement-2 : Unit vector of E B 

     

      gives thedirection of propagation of electromagnetic wave.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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    SECTION - IStraight Objective Type Questions

    This section contains 25 multiple choice questions

    numbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

    (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    31.

    NO2

    Cl

    + OH–   (X) (Y)

    H O3+

    Identify the product (Y)

    (1)

    OH

    NO2

    (2)

    Cl

    OHO N2

    (3)

    NO2

    NO2

    (4)

    NO2

    OH

    32. In which of the molecules all the effects namely

    inductive, resonance and hyperconjugation operate?

    (1) CH3 – CH = CH2

    (2) ClCH2CH2OH

    (3) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO

    (4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

    PART - B (CHEMISTRY)

    33. 2 52 5

    C H ONaHOCl KOH

    3 2 in C H OHCH CH CH (A) (B) (C)  

    The product (C) formed in the given sequence ofreactions will be

    (1) CH3 – CH = CH – OC2H5

    (2) CH – CH – CH3 2

    OH

    OC H2 5

    (3) CH – CH – CH3 2

    OC H2 5

    OH

    (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH = O

    34. Which of the following hydrocarbon gives thefollowing compounds on ozonolysis followed byreductive hydrolysis?

    I. CH3 – CO – CH3

    II. CH3CHO

    III. CH3 – CO – CHO

    (1) CH – CH = C – C = CH – CH3 3

    CH3

    CH3

    (2) CH – C = C – CH = CH – CH3 3

    CH3

    CH3

    (3) CH – CH = C – CH = C – CH3 3

    CH3 CH3

    (4) Both (2) & (3)

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    35. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing

    order of their basic strength

    N

    H

    NH2

    N

    I II III IV

    C H – NH – C H2 5 2 5

    (1) IV > I > III > II

    (2) II > III > IV > I

    (3) I > IV > II > III

    (4) IV > II > III > I

    36. Consider the following base induced elimination

    reactions

    CH – CO – CH – CH3 3

    Br

    CH – CO – CH – CH23 2

    B / –

    B / –

    CH – CO – CH = CH3 2

    (X)

    Br(Y)

    (Z)

    Which one of the following statements is true?

    (1) (X) reacts faster than (Y)

    (2) (Y) reacts faster than (X)

    (3) Both (X) and (Y) react at the same rate

    (4) Both (X) and (Y) do not react

    37. Identify the product (B) in the following reaction

    18

    2 2 2 2HOCH C C CH CH OH H

    Lindlar 's H /  

    Catalyst(A) (B)

     

    (1) HOCH – CH2

    O – CH2

    CH2

    CH2

    18

    (2) CH – CH – CH – CH OH2 2 2

    18

    CH – O2

    (3)O

    18

    (4)O

    38. Find out the reagent (X) used in the followingreaction

    MeBaeyer's

    Reagent(A)

    (X)Me

    OH

    O

    (1) NaBH4 (2) (i) O3, (ii) Zn/H2O

    (3) K2Cr2O7 /H+ (4) NH2 – NH2 /KOH

    39. Name the product formed in the following reaction

    CH – CH – CH – CH – CH – CH3 2 2 3

    Cl Cl

     + alcoholic Na S

    2

    (1) CH – CH – CH – CH – CH – CH3 2 2 3

    SH SH

    (2) CH – CH – CH – CH3 3

    CH – CH2 2

    (3) CH – CH CH – CH3 3

    S

    CH – CH2 2

    (4) CH – CH – CH – CH – CH – CH3 2 2 3

    SH Cl

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    40. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing

    order of their acidic strength

    HCOOH CH3 – COOH C6H5 – COOH

    I II III

    (1) II < III < I (2) II < I < III

    (3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II

    41. (+) mandelic acid has a specific rotation of +158º.What would be the specific rotation of a solution

    containing 35% of (–) mandelic acid and 65% of (+)

    mandelic acid?

    (1) (–) 55.3° (2) (+) 47.4°

    (3) (+) 102.7° (4) (–) 102.7°

    42. Identify the reagent (X) in the following reaction

    OH

    CH3

    (X)

    Br

    CH3

    (1) PBr3 (2) SOBr2

    (3) HBr (4) Both (1) & (2)

    43. Arrange the following compounds in the decreasing

    order of their reactivity towards SN2 reaction

    I. CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl

    II. CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl

    III. CH3 – CH = CH – Cl

    (1) II > I > III (2) I > II > III

    (3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II

    44. Which one of the following compounds is most

    acidic?

    (1)

    OH

    (2)

    COOH

    (3)

    O   OH

    OHO

    (4)   C

    O

    OHHO

    45. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

    (1) m-cresol when treated with Br2(H2O) gives

    tribromoderivative

    (2) Picric acid and phenol can be distinguished by

    FeCl3

    (3) o-nitrophenol is steam volatile

    (4) Phenol and benzyl alcohol can be separated byNaOH

    46. Identify the missing reactant in the following reaction

    CH3CH2NH2 + (X) + KOH CH3CH2NC + KCl + H2O

    (1) CH3Cl (2) CH2Cl2

    (3) CHCl3

    (4) CCl4

    47. What is the major product formed in the following

    reaction?

    OH

    + K S O2 2 8   Major productOHH O

    2

    (1)

    OH

    OH

    (2)

    SO H3

    OH

    (3)

    OH

    SO H3

    (4)

    OH

    OH

    48. Pesticides consist of

    (1) Insecticides (2) Herbicides

    (3) Fungicides (4) All of these

    49. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

    (1) CO2 (2) N2O

    (3) CO (4) CH4

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    50. Which of the following free radicals is most stable?

    (1)

    CH2(2)

    CH3

    (3)

    CH3

    (4)

    CH3

    51. 2CH CH C CH HBr A(Major) ,

    The product 'A' is

    (1) CH3 CH CHC

    Br

    (2) CHC

    Br

    CH2 CH2

    (3) CH2C

    Br

    CH2 CH

    (4) CHCH

    Br

    CH2 CH

    52. The number of optically active isomers of the following

    compound is

    CH – C – CH = CH – C – CH3 3

    H H

    Cl Cl

    (1) 2

    (2) 4

    (3) 6

    (4) 8

    53. The decreasing order of stability of carbocations is

    I.3 3

    CH CH CH

    II.3 2

    CH O CH

    III. 3 2CH S CH

    (1) III > II > I (2) II > III > I

    (3) I > III > II (4) I > II > III

    54. Which one of the following compounds gives instantprecipitate with aqueous AgNO3?

    (1) Cl (2)

    Cl

    (3) CH2 = CH – Cl (4)

    Cl

    55. Identify the major product formed in the followingreaction

    OH

    OH+

    Major product

    (1)O

    (2)

    O

    O

    (3)

    O

    O

    (4)O

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    SECTION - II

    Assertion – Reason Type Questions

    Directions : Questions number 56 to 60 are Assertion- 

    Reason type questions. Each of these questions 

    contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and 

    Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has 

    four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct 

    answer. You have to select the correct choice.

    56. Statement-1 : Neopentyl chloride undergoes

    nucleophilic substitution by SN1 mechanism only.

    and

    Statement-2 : Neopentyl chloride is a primary alkyl

    halide.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is   a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    57. Statement-1 : Dipole moment of CH3 – F is greater

    than that of CH3 – Cl.

    and

    Statement-2 : C – F bond is more polar than C – Cl

    bond.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    58. Statement-1 : Butan-1-ol and butan-2-ol can bedifferentiated by I2 /NaOH.

    and

    Statement-2 : Butan-2-ol is more acidic thanbutan-1-ol.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    59. Statement-1 : If BOD level of water in a reservoir isgreater than 5 ppm, it is highly polluted.

    and

    Statement-2 : High biological oxygen demandmeans low activity of bacteria in water.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    60. Statement-1 : The nitro group of nitrobenzene isdeactivating and mata directing towards electrophilicaromatic substitution.

    and

    Statement-2 : Nitrobenzene reacts with CH3 – Cl in

    presence of AlCl3 to give m-nitrotoluene.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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    SECTION - IStraight Objective Type Questions

    This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    61. If

    4 2

    22

    4log

    x dx 

    ∫  , then

    (1)    + 2 is irrational number

    (2)    = 2 (1 – )

    (3) (, ) lies on x 2 – 4y 2 = 2(x  – 1)

    (4) (, ) lies on x 2 – 4y 2 = 4(x  + 1)

    62. If23 , 2

    ( )

    14 48 , 2

    x x f x 

    a x x 

       

    and f (x ) has a local maxima at x  = 2, then

    (1) Least value of 'a' is 2011

    (2) Greatest value of 'a' may be 2011

    (3) a can not be determined

    (4) The greatest value of 'a' may be 2345

    63. Iflog (1 )

    ( )1

    x e 

    x e dx f x c  

    ∫  , then f (x ) =

    (1) –log(1 + e x )

    (2)1 x 

    (3)   21

    log(1 )2

    x e 

    (4)   21

    log(1 )2

    x e 

    64. If

    2

    2

    03

    3 cos sin 0,y x 

    t dt tdt  

    ∫ ∫   thendy 

    dx 

    (1) 23 cos x 

    (2) 21

    2 .sin( )y y 

    (3)2

    2

    3 cos

    2sin( )

    (4) 2

    2

    3 cos

    2 sin( )

    y y 

    65. Tangent to a curve xy   = a2  at point P   meets the

    x -axis in A and y -axis in B . Then, the ratio AP  : PB is

    (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

    (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3

    66. For the curve y  = a log(x 2 – a2), where a is positivenumber. The algebraic sum of the tangent and

    subtangent at any point on curve is

    (1)xy 

    a(2)

    2xy 

    a

    (3)2

    xy 

    a(4)

    x y 

    a

    67. On the interval [ 2, 2] , one of the value of 'c ' in

    Rolle's theorem for f (x ) = 2x 3 + x 2 – 4x  – 2 is

    (1)3

    5(2)

    4

    5

    (3)2

    3(4)

    2

    3

    PART - C (MATHEMATICS)

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    68. The sum of an infinitely decreasing geometricprogression is equal to the least value of the function

    2 25( ) 312

    f x x x     and the first term of the

    progression is equal to the square of its commonratio. Then, the common ratio is

    (1)2 1

    (2)3 1

    (3) 2 3 (4)2 2

    3

    69. Let f (x ) = |x 2 – 5x  + 6|,12

    0,5

    x  

    . Then, the sum

    of the maximum and minimum values of f  on12

    0,5

     is

    (1) 6 (2) 5

    (3)13

    2(4)

    11

    2

    70. The value of 2 20

    logx dx 

    ∫   is equal to

    (1) loge ()2 (2)  

    (3) log ( )e  (4) 22

    71. The area bounded by x 3 = 4(x  – y )2 and x  = 1 is

    (1)4

    5 sq. units (2)

    2

    5 sq. units

    (3) 1 sq. unit (4) 2 sq. unit

    72. If 1/3

    7 4 4 4/3 41 ( 1) (4 3)x x dx k x x c   ∫  , then

    the value of k  is equal to

    (1)1

    112(2)

    1

    28

    (3)3

    112(4)

    1

    56

    73. If y (x  – y )2 = x , then the value of3

    dx 

    x y ∫   equals

    (1)   2log ( ) 12 e x 

    x y c 

    (2)   21

    log ( ) 12 e 

    x y c 

    (3)   21log ( ) 12 e x x y c  

    (4)   2log ( ) 1e  x y c 

    74. The value of 2sec (2 sec )

    (1 2sec )

    x x dx 

    ∫   is equal to

    (1) 2cosecx  + cotx  + c 

    (2) (2cotx  + cosecx )–1 + c 

    (3) 2cosecx  – cotx  + c 

    (4) (2cosecx  + cotx )–1 + c 

    75. The value of

    log 5

    0

    1

    3

    e  x x 

    e e dx 

    ∫   is equal to

    (1) 3 + (2) 3 –

    (3) 4 + (4) 4 –

    76. The maximum value of2

    1( 1)

    1

    ax 

    a

    e dx 

    ∫  , aR,   is

    attained at

    (1) a = 2 (2) a = 1

    (3) a = –1 (4) a = 0

    77. If [ t ] stands for the integral part of t , then the value of

    5 /12

    0

    [tan ]x dx 

    ∫   equals

    (1)2

    (2)  

    (3)4

    (4) 2

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    78. The funct ion

     /6

    ( ) (4sin 3cos )x 

    F x t t dt  

    ∫    attains

    least value on3

    ,4 4

     at x  equals

    (1)3 (2)

    2

    (3)3

    4

    (4)

    4

    79. The area bounded by the curve y  = 2x  – x 2 and the

    straight line y  = –x  is

    (1) 3 (2)7

    2

    (3) 92

    (4) 4

    80. The area bounded by the curve y 2 = 4a(a – |x  – a|),

    a > 0, is

    (1)28

    3

    a(2)

    216

    3

    a

    (3)219

    3

    a(4)

    213

    3

    a

    81. The area of the region bounded by the curves y  = x 2,

    1y 

    x   and

    1

    2x    is log

    e 2 – p , then p  equals to

    (1)5

    24(2)

    5

    24

    (3)7

    24(4)

    7

    24

    82. The graph of y  = f (x ), where f (x )  0, meets x -axis

    in two points (0, 0) and (2, 0) and encloses an area

    of3

    4 square units with the axes. Then the value of

    2

    0

    ( ) ,xf x dx  ∫   equals to

    (1)3

    2(2)

    3

    4

    (3)3

    4

    (4) 1

    83. If2

    1 1 1.....

    1 2 2n S 

    n n  n n 

      , then the

    value of limn  S n  is equal to

    (1) loge 2

    (2) 2 + 2loge 2

    (3) 2 + loge 2

    (4) 2loge 2

    84. The number of critical points for the function

    31 2( ) sin tan (sin 1)tan ,3 8

    f x x x   

    where  <  < 2, 2 1 ,2

    x n  

     where n  is a integer, is

    (1) 4

    (2) 2

    (3) 1

    (4) 0

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    85. For x (0, ), the least value of2

    2 cos( )

    sin

    x f x 

    is

    (1) 2

    (2) 3

    (3) 4

    (4) 3

    SECTION - II

    Assertion – Reason Type Questions

    Directions : Questions number 86 to 90 are Assertion- 

    Reason type questions. Each of these questions 

    contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and 

    Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has 

    four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct 

    answer. You have to select the correct choice.

    86. Statement-1 : The function f (x ) = x 3 + bx 2 + cx  + d,

    where 0  b 2 < 3c , is strictly increasing in (–, ).

    and

    Statement-2 : If f   is continuous on [a, b ],

    differentiable in (a, b ) and f (x ) > 0 x     (a, b ),

    then f  is strictly increasing in (a, b ).

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is   a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    87. Statement-1 : The function f (x ) = 2 – (x   – 1)2/3

    attains maximum value 2 at x  = 1.

    and

    Statement-2 : If f x   does not exist at a point x 0but f x    exists in a neighbourhood of x 0  and

    changes its sign at x 0, then x 0  may be a point of

    local extremum for f (x ).

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    88. Statement-1 : The function

    2 12 2 sin , 0( )

    2, 0

    x x f x  x 

         

    has local maximum at x  = 0.

    and

    Statement-2 : If f (x ) is a real valued function suchthat f (x  + y ) = f (x ) + f (y ) then

    2

    2

    4f x f x dx  

    ∫ 

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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    89. Statement-1 :

      2tan sec tan ,x e x x x x dx f x c   ∫    thenf (0) = 2

    and

    Statement-2 : 21

    1x x x 

    e x dx e f x c  

    ∫ 

    then f (1) = 2.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    90. Statement-1 : If [ ] represents the greatest integer

    function then0

    4sin cos cos 04 4 2

    x x x dx 

    ∫ 

    and

    Statement-2 :

    20

    10

    2sin cos 302 2

    x x dx 

    ∫ (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is   a correct explanation forStatement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT  a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

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    Test Booklet Code 

    Test No. 5

    Paper I

    JEE (Main) 2014

     for 

          A      L      L

         I   N   D   I

      A A A

     K ASH  T  E  S  T   

    S   E    R   I      E     

    S      

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    Test - 5 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

    ANSWERS

    1. (4)

    2. (3)

    3. (1)

    4. (1)

    5. (2)

    6. (2)

    7. (3)

    8. (3)

    9. (4)

    10. (2)

    11. (3)

    12. (2)

    13. (2)

    14. (1)

    15. (1)16. (2)

    17. (1)

    18. (2)

    19. (2)

    20. (3)

    21. (4)

    22. (3)

    23. (3)

    24. (2)

    25. (2)

    26. (1)

    27. (1)

    28. (1)

    29. (3)

    30. (1)

    PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

    31. (2)

    32. (4)

    33. (2)

    34. (2)

    35. (1)

    36. (3)

    37. (4)

    38. (4)

    39. (1)

    40. (4)

    41. (2)

    42. (3)

    43. (2)

    44. (1)

    45. (4)46. (2)

    47. (4)

    48. (3)

    49. (3)

    50. (3)

    51. (4)

    52. (3)

    53. (2)

    54. (1)

    55. (4)

    56. (3)

    57. (1)

    58. (1)

    59. (2)

    60. (1)

    61. (1)

    62. (4)

    63. (3)

    64. (4)

    65. (3)

    66. (2)

    67. (1)

    68. (4)

    69. (2)

    70. (1)

    71. (2)

    72. (1)

    73. (4)

    74. (2)

    75. (2)76. (1)

    77. (4)

    78. (3)

    79. (3)

    80. (2)

    81. (3)

    82. (4)

    83. (2)

    84. (3)

    85. (1)

    86. (2)

    87. (2)

    88. (4)

    89. (3)

    90. (3)

    TEST - 5 (Paper-I)