JEE Main-2014_Test-3 (Paper-I) - Code-A.pdf

8/19/2019 JEE Main-2014_Test-3 (Paper-I) - Code-A.pdf

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Roll No.:

Centre Code:

TEST No. 3

Test Date:

Test Booklet Code

JEE (Main) 2014

for

A L L

I N D

I A A A

K ASH T E S T

S E R I E

S

PAPER - I

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATE1. Readeach question carefully.

2. It is mandatory to use Black Ball point PEN to darken theappropriate circle in the answer sheet.

3. Mark shouldbe dark andshould completely fill thecircle.

4. Rough work must notbe done on theanswer sheet.

5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material onanswer sheet.

6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

7. Before attempting the question paper, student shouldensure that the test paper contains all pages and no pageis missing.

8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code andDate of Birth havebeen filled and marked correctly.

9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over,the answersheetto be returned to theinvigilator.

There are parts in the question paper A, B and Cconsisting of , andhaving 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Eachquestion is allotted 4 marks for each correctresponse.

three

Physics Chemistry Mathematics

(four)

10.

11. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximummarks are360.

12. One fourth (¼) marks will be deducted for indicatingincorrect response of each question. No deduction fromthe total score will be made if no response is indicated for anyquestion in theanswer sheet.

13. Patternof the questions areas under:

Section – I : Straight ObjectiveQuestions

Section – II : Assertion– ReasonType Questions

1 5 / 1 2 / 2 0 1 3


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TOPICS OF THE TEST

Test No. 3

Physics Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of

Fluids, Oscillations

Chemistry The Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface

Chemistry

Mathematics Trigonometric Functions (Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric

Equations, Properties of Triangle), Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Paper I


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Space for Rough Work

Test - 3 (Paper-I) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014

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PART - A (PHYSICS)

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type Questions

This section contains 25 multiple choice questions

numbered 1 to 25. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer :

1. A particle of mass m is released from a distance 4R from the centre of a planet of radius R and mass M .The particle travels, through a tunnel leading to itscentre of the sphere. The ratio of its speed at B and

C is

(1) 35

(2)2

74R

R C B

A

(3)2

3

(4)5

7

2. A water drop falls in air with constant velocity. Thedifference in curvature of radii r 2 – r 1 of the drop'ssurface at upper and lower point separated by the

distance h is proportional to (assume that r 2 – r 1


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All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main) 2014 Test - 3 (Paper-I)

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5. An air bubble is at a depth h below the free surfaceof water. If pressure inside the bubble is three time

that of atmospheric pressure (P 0). The radius of thebubble is given by

[ = density of water, T = surface tension]

(1)0

3T

P gh (2)

0

2

2

T

P gh

(3)0

3

3 2

T

P gh (4)

0

2

2

T

P gh

6. A hemispherical water drop drips from a capillary.

When the drop breaks from the capillary its mass is

m . If the radius of capillary is R 1 then surface tensionof water is

(1)mg

R (2)

2mg

R

(3)2

mg

R (4)

2

mg

R

7. A uniform rod of length and density is rotated withan angular velocity about one of its ends O as

shown in the figure. The stress at a distance3

4

from O is

O

(1)2 25

16

(2)

2 27

16

(3)2 27

32

(4)

2 25

32

8. A small hole is made at depth 3h on a side wall ofa cylindrical vessel, filled with an ideal liquid. The

hole is at a height h from the base of the vessel.The speed by which it strikes the floor is

h

3h

(1) 2 gh (2) 2 2gh

(3) 4 gh (4) 2 3gh

9. A tank is f i lled with a l iquid moving with anacceleration as shown in the figure. The free surfacemakes an angle with the horizontal, the is

37°

a g =

(1)–1 3tan

4(2)

–1 4tan3

(3)–1 1tan

2(4)

–1 2tan3

10. The speed v of a particle moving along x -axis is given

by 216 48 (cm/s)v x x . The amplitude of

oscillation is

(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm

(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm


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11. A block of mass m is connected to three springs asshown in the figure. The block is displaced down

slightly, from its mean position. The time period ofoscillation is

m

30º 30º

2k 2k

k

(1) 2m

k (2)

m

k

(3) 22

m

k (4) 4

m

k

12. The point of suspension of a simple pendulum oflength is accelerated at an angle 60º with thevertical with an acceleration a = g (m/s2) as shownin the figure. The time period of oscillation of thependulum is given by

60° a g =

(1) 22g

(2) 23g

(3) 23g

(4) 43g

13. A body is projected from between two planets

A and B of masses M and 2M respectively as shown

in the figure, such that it escapes from their field. Itsescape velocity is

(1)GM

d

(2) 3GM d

v e B

A

2d 2M M

d

(3)5GM

d

(4)7GM

d

14. Two bodies of mass m and 4m are placed at adistance r apart. The gravitational potential at a pointwhere gravitational field is zero.

m 4m

A B r

(1)3GM

r

(2)

6GM

r

(3)9GM

r

(4)

12GM

r

15. A solid sphere of radius R is floating at the interfaceof two immiscible liquids of densities and 0(0 > ) such that half of volume lying in each. Ifatmospheric pressure is P 0, then the forceexperiented by the upper half of the sphere is

(1)37

3R g

(2)2 3

0

7

3P R R g

3R

0(3)

2 30

7

3P R R g

(4)2

0P R


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16. A block of mass 1 kg is suspended from a spring ofspring constant 2. The spring is now cut into two

identical halves and same block is suspended fromone of the two pieces such that one of the piecetouch the other below in its equilibrium position. Thefrequency of small oscillation of mass will be

1 kg

(1) 2 (2) 2 2

(3) 2 2 1 (4) 2( 2 1)

17. A ball of density = 3 is released from rest fromthe centre of an accelerated sealed troughcompletely filled with liquid of density . If the troughmoves horizontal with an acceleration a0, the

acceleration of the ball with respect to the trough isgiven by

(1) 2 20a g (2)

2 20

2

a g

(3)2 20

3

a g (4)

2 20 4

3

a g

18. If the radius of earth's orbit be made

th1

4

, then the

duration of an year will become

(1) 8 times (2) 4 times

(3)1

times8

(4)1

times4

19. At a distance 320 km above the surface of earth, thevalue of acceleration due to gravity will be lower than

its value on the surface of earth by nearly(R e = 6400 km)

(1) 2% (2) 6%

(3) 10% (4) 14%

20. A solid of density D is floating in a liquid of density

d (> D ). If v 1 be the volume of solid submerged in theliquid and v 2 be the volume of solid NOT submerged

in the liquid, then1

2

v

v is equal to

(1)D

d (2)

d

D

(3)D

d D (4)

D

d D

21. Two masses m and 2m at an infinite distance fromeach other initially at rest, start interacting

gravitationally. Their velocity of approach when theyare at a distance r apart

(1)2Gm

r (2)

3Gm

r

(3)6Gm

r (4)

32

Gm

r

22. In the figure shown, a spring fixed to wall is initially

undeformed. Now it is compressed by 2A .

Consider the collision of block with wall to beperfectly elastic. The time period of oscillation is

m

k

A

(1) 2m

k (2) 4

m

k

(3)3

2

m

k

(4)

5

2

m

k


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23. Two spherical balls of radii 2r and r and of density

are tied up with a light string and released in a

viscous liquid of density > , with the string just

taut. The tension in the string, when spheres attain

terminal velocity is

2r

r

(1)33 ( – )

5r g

(2)

310 ( )3

r g

(3)38

( – )3 r g

(4)35

( – )3 r g

24. A planet of mass m moves around the sun of mass

M along an elliptical orbit such that its minimum and

maximum distance from sun are r and 3r

respectively. Its period of revolution will be

(1)32

4r

GM (2)

3

2r

GM

(3)

32r

GM (4)

3

2 2

r

GM

25. A particle moves according to the law, cos2

t x r

.

The distance covered by it in the time interval

between t = 0 to t = 2 s is

(1) r (2) 2r

(3) 3r (4) 4r

SECTION - II

Assertion – Reason Type Questions

Directions : Questions number 26 to 30 are Assertion-

Reason type questions. Each of these questions

contains two statements. Statement-1 (Assertion) and

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions also has

four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

answer. You have to select the correct choice.

26. Statement-1 : The word weightlessness means zerocontact force but not zero weight of the object.

and

Statement-2 : Weight = Mass × acceleration due to

gravity.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is a correct explanation forStatement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation forStatement-1

(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

27. Statement-1 : Pressure at different points at samedepth or height will not be equal for a horizontallyaccelerating liquid.

and

Statement-2 : Pressure decreases with horizontal

distance measured in the direction of acceleration in

a fluid moving with horizontal acceleration.(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1

(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1




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This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 31 to 55. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. The overall rate law of the following complex reactionis

1

–1

K

2K

2A A (fast equilibrium)

2

–2

K

KA + B C (fast equilibrium)

3K

2A + C P + 2A (slow)

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)

28. Statement-1 : The angular speed of a planet isminimum when it is farthest from the sun.

and

Statement-2 : Angular momentum of a planetrevolving around the sun is conserved.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

Statement-1(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;




29. Statement-1 : Poisson's ratio cannot be greater than0.5.

and

Statement-2 : Poisson's ratio is a characteristicproperty of a body.


(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation forStatement-1



30. Statement-1 : In case of simple harmonic motion,average total energy of oscillations per cycle is equal

to its maximum kinetic energy.and

Statement-2 : Average kinetic energy per cycle isequal to half of its maximum kinetic energy for aparticle executing S.H.M. Further, total energy ofoscillation is equally distributed among kineticenergy and potential energy at instants.



Statement-1



(1)1 2 3

–1 –2

K K K

K K[A]3[B]

(2)1 –2 3

–1 2

K K K

K K[A][B]3

(3)–1 –2 3

1 2

K K K

K K[A][B]2

(4)1 2 3

–1 –2

K K K

K K[A][B]

32. Co-ordination no. of Fe+3 in Fe3O4 is

(1) 4 only (2) 6 only

(3) 4, 6 (4) 8


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33. In one kg solvent (NH3), addition of which decreasemelting point up to least extent

(1) 1 mole of AgCl

(2) 1 mole of CH3COOH

(3) 1 mole of HCl

(4) 1 mole of AgI

34. A chemical reaction is carried out at 600 K. If thesame reaction is carried out in the presence of acatalyst at same rate, temperature required is 500 K.Calculate activation energy if catalyst lowers it by50 kJ/mol

(1) 100 kJ/mol

(2) 300 kJ/mol

(3) 400 kJ/mol

(4) 600 kJ/mol

35. On dilution conductance of strong electrolyte

increases because(1) Solute - solute interaction decreases

(2) Solute - solvent interaction decreases

(3) Solvent - solvent interaction decreases

(4) Degree of dissociation increase

36. Which of the following have maximum flocculationvalue of a As2S3 solution?

(1) AlCl3

(2) BaSO4

(3) NaCl(4) Na3PO4

37. Which of the following half cell have highestreduction potential?

(1) Ag+ + e– Ag

(2) AgCl + e– Ag + Cl–

(3) AgBr + e– Ag + Br–

(4) AgI + e– Ag + I–

38. Correct sequence of molecular weight ofnon-electrolytic solute in following graph

A

B

C

osmoticPressure

Weight of solute

(1) MC > MB > MA (2) MA = MB = MC

(3) MA > M

B > M

C(4) CBA

MMM = =

2 4

39. Rate of evaporation of a liquid is always faster at ahigher temperature because

(1) Enthalpy of vaporisation is zero

(2) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always endothermic

(3) Enthalpy of vaporisation is always exothermic

(4) Internal pressure of the liquid is less than that ofgas

40. Which one of the following is an example of amaximum boiling azeotropic?

(1) H2O – HCl (2) H2O – C2H5OH

(3) CHCl3 – CH3OH (4) CCl4 – CH3OH

41. Out of following which is an example of ionic solid?

(1) PF5 (2) PCl5

(3) CO2 (4) H2SO442. Correct regarding process of adsorption of H2 on a

platinum surface is (overall process)

H S G

(1) +ve +ve –ve

(2) –ve +ve –ve

(3) –ve –ve –ve

(4) +ve –ve +ve


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43. Lattice parameter for monoclinic crystal system

(1) a b c =

(2) a = b c =

(3) a b c

(4) a = b = c =

44. Identify incorrect matchElectrolyte Electrode Anode Cathode

(1) aq. CuSO4 Inert O2 Cu

(2) aq. CuSO4 Cu O2 Cu

(3) Molten NaCl Inert Cl2 Na

(4) aq. NaCl Inert Cl2 H2

45. When FeCl3 solution is added to NaOH a negativelycharged solution is obtained it is due to the

(1) Pressure of basic group

(2) Preferential adsorption

(3) Electron capture by solution particles

(4) Self dissociation

46. Number of formula unit present in one unit cell ofCsCl is

(1) 4

(2) 2

(3) 6

(4) 1

47. Ratio of osmotic pressure of two solutions of equalweight of glucose and urea at 300 K and 600 Krespectively

(1) 1 : 1

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 6

(4) 1 : 4

48. The graph between t1/2 versus concentration for a 2nd

order chemical kinetics is

(1)

1

2

t

concentration

(2)

1

2

t

concentration

(3)

1

2

t

concentration

(4)

1

2

t

concentration

49. Silicon crystallizes in a structure similar to diamond.Find the density of silicon if Si – Si bond length is1.88 Å.

(1) 2.23 g/cm3 (2) 4.51 g/cm3

(3) 6.23 g/cm3 (4) 8.46 g/cm3

50. Which of the following graph represent chemicaladsorption?

(1)

x

m

T

(2)

x

m

P

(3)

x

m

P

T2T1

(T > T )2 1

(4)

x

m

T

T1


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51. Which of the following have highest osmotic

pressure if 1 mole of each is added in one litre

solution?

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6]

(2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(3) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

(4) AlCl3

52. Choose correct regarding points A and B in following

graph

Solvent Solution

A

B

SolidV.P.

T(1) Vapour pressure at both points is same

(2) Equilibrium constant at both points is same

(3) Mole fraction of solvent is same

(4) At A equilibrium exist between H2O(ice) and

H2O(l) while at B exist H2O (ice) + solute and

H2O(l)

53. Following equation give relation between conductance

and concentration

12

m m AC

value of A depend on

(1) Solvent only

(2) Type of electrolyte only

(3) Solvent and type of electrolyte

(4) Charge on cation electrolyte only

54. Choose the correct regarding catalyst

(1) It changes the G of the reaction

(2) It catalyses spontaneous as well as

non-spontaneous reaction

(3) It changes activation energy of reaction

(4) All of these

55. Catalyst used in following reaction is x

X2 3CO(g) + 2H (g) CH OH(g)

x is

(1) Ni (2) Cu

(3) Pt (4) Cu/ZnO – Cr2O3

SECTION - II






four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct

answer. You have to select the correct choice.

56. Statement-1 : Activity of an enzyme depend on

temperature and pH of the medium.

and

Statement-2 : Activity of catatyst is highest at

pH = 0.



Statement-1


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1




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PART - C (MATHEMATICS)


This section contains 25 multiple choice questionsnumbered 61 to 85. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. The number of all possible triplet (a1, a2, a3) such

that a1 + a2sinx + a3cosx = 0 holds for all x is

(1) Zero (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) Infinite

57. Statement-1 : Fe3O4 retain its ferrimagnetism insolid state and in solution.

and

Statement-2 : In Fe3O4, magnetic moment of thedomains in the substance are aligned in parallel andunparallel direction in unequal number.





58. Statement-1 : Frenkel defect have no effect ondensity of the crystal.

and

Statement-2 : Frenkel defect is stochiometric defectand in stochiometric defect Z does not change.





59. Statement-1 : On mixing of two component resultingthe formation of ideal solution Hmixing = 0,

G mixing of the process is negative.

and

Statement-2 : Driving force responsible for mixing isincrease in entropy of the system.





60. Statement-1 : Rate of reaction increases with rise intemperature.

and

Statement-2 : With rise in temperature thresholdenergy decreases.






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62. The value of2 2 23 5cos cos cos .....

16 16 16

2 15cos16

is equal to

(1) 2 (2) 3

(3) 4 (4) 2 2 3

63. The least value of 36cosec2 + sec2 is given by

(1) 37 (2) 49

(3) 142 (4) 7

64. The number of ordered pairs (a, x ) satisfying theequation cosec2(a + 2)x + a2 – 1 = 0, – < x < and a is real, is

(1) 2 (2) 4

(3) 0 (4) Infinite

65. The equation sin4x – (k + 1)sin2x – (k + 2) = 0possesses a solution if

(1) k > –2 (2) k < –1

(3) –2 k – 1 (4) k R

66. The most general values of for which sin – cos= min (1, a2 – 4a + 6) are given by

aR

(1) ( 1)4 4

n n

, n Z

(2) ( 1)4 4

n n

, n Z

(3) 24

n , n Z

(4) 2n , n Z

67. The number of solutions of the equation sin5x .cos3x =

sin9x .cos7x lying in the interval 0,2

is

(1) 6 (2) 7

(3) 8 (4) 9

68. If1

cos2 ( 2 1) cos2

, then the most

general values of is

(1) 2 , 24 3

n n

(2) 2 , 24 3

n n

(3) 2 , 24 3

n n

(4) ,4 3

n n

69. Least posit ive integral value of x satisfying

(e x – 2) (sinx – cosx ) (x – log2)1

cos 02

x

is

(1) 3 (2) 1

(3) 4 (4) 2

70. The value of 1 1

cos cos 2cot ( 2 1)

is equal to

(1) 2 1 (2) 1 2

(3)4

(4)

3

4

71. The value of sec2(tan–14) + cosec2(cot–15) is equal

to

(1) 43 (2) 39

(3) 41 (4) 37

72. If [tan–1x ]2 – 4[tan–1x ] + 4 0, where [.] denotes greatestinteger x , then x belongs to

(1) [tan2, tan3)

(2) (tan2, )

(3) ,4 2

(4) No values of x is possible


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73. In a PQR , the length of sides opposite to thevertices P , Q , R are p , q , r respectively. Then

2 22 2– cos sin

2 2

P P q r q r is equal to

(1) p 2 (2) q 2

(3) r 2 (4) qr

74. Number of real roots of the equation sec + cosec =

15 lying between 0 and is

(1) 0 (2) 2

(3) 4 (4) 8

75. The number of solutions of the equation

2sin 2( 2014) 20152 2014

x x x

(1) Forms an empty set (2) Is only one

(3) Is only two (4) Is more than 2

76. If 32tan8 = 2cos2 – 3cos and 3cos2 = 1, then

the general value of is

(1) 23

n

(2)2

23

n

(3)2

23

n

(4) 2n

77. The equation sin4x + cos4x + 3sin2x + 4 = 0 issolvable for

(1)1 12 2

(2)1 1

8 8

(3)7 5

8 8

(4) R

78. The value of tan610º – 9tan410º + 11tan210º is equal to

(1) 1

(2)2

3

(3)1

3

(4)1

3

79. The number of real solutions of the equation

1 2 1 2tan 3 2 cos 4 3x x x x is

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Zero

(4) Infinite

80. Sum of the inf inite terms of the series

1 2 1 2 1 23 3 3cot 1 cot 2 cot 3 ...4 4 4

is

(1)3

(2)4

(3) tan–12

(4) tan–13

81. If 2s be the perimeter of the triangle ABC , then the

value of 2 2cos cos2 2

B Aa b

is equal to

(1) s (2) 2s

(3)2

s (4)

3

2

s


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82. Two sides of a triangle are given by the roots of the

equation 2 2 3 2 0x x . The angle between the

sides is3

. The perimeter of the triangle is

(1) 6 3

(2) 2 3 6

(3) 2 3 10

(4) 3 6

83. In a triangle ABC , the sides a, b and c are the rootsof x 3 – 8x 2 + 17x – 10 = 0. Then the value of

cos cos cosA B C

a b c equals

(1)3

4

(2)3

2

(3) 1 (4)9

16

84. If in a triangle ABC , the line joining incentre andcircumcenter is parallel to the side AB , then thevalue of cosA + cosB is equal to

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) –1

85. If the area of a triangle ABC is c 2 – (a – b )2, thenthe value of tanC is equal to

(1)4

3(2)

1

4

(3)8

15(4) 4

SECTION - II






four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

86. Statement-1 : The equation sin2x – 5sinx + 6 = 0

has no real solution.

and

Statement-2 : |sinx | 1 x R .



Statement-1


Statement-1



87. Statement-1 : The maximum value of

sin2014 + cos2014 is 1.

and

Statement-2 : sin2014 sin2 and cos2014 cos2.


Statement-1


Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

Statement-1




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88. Statement-1 : tan + 2tan2 + 4tan4 + 8tan8 +..... + 32tan32 + 64cot64 = cot.

and

Statement-2 : cot – tan = 2cot2.


Statement-1





89. Statement-1 : If x > 1, then

31 1 1

2 2

3 2tan tan 5 tan

1 3 1–

x x x x

x x

.

and

Statement-2 : For x 1,

1 1

2

2tan 2 tan

1–

x x

x

and

31 1

2

3tan 3 tan

1 3

x x x

x

.


Statement-1




90. Statement-1 : If in the triangle ABC , the incentre is

the middle point of the median AD , then1

cos4

A .

and

Statement-2 : If in a triangle ABC , the incentre isthe middle point of the median AD , then ABC is an

isosceles triangle.


Statement-2 is a correct explanation forStatement-1





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Test Booklet Code

Test No. 2

Paper I

JEE (Main) 2014

for

A L L

I N D I

A A A

K ASH T E S T

S E R I E

S


18/18

Test - 2 (Paper-I) (Answers & Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2014

1/8

ANSWERS

1. (3)

2. (1)

3. (2)

4. (1)

5. (3)

6. (4)

7. (3)

8. (3)

9. (3)

10. (2)

11. (3)

12. (1)

13. (3)

14. (4)

15. (1)

16. (4)

17. (3)

18. (4)

19. (1)

20. (3)

21. (4)

22. (3)

23. (4)

24. (3)

25. (2)

26. (2)

27. (2)

28. (1)

29. (3)

30. (2)

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY MATHEMATICS

31. (1)

32. (4)

33. (3)

34. (1)

35. (2)

36. (1)

37. (2)

38. (2)

39. (1)

40. (1)

41. (2)

42. (2)

43. (3)

44. (4)

45. (2)

46. (4)

47. (3)

48. (1)

49. (1)

50. (2)

51. (3)

52. (1)

53. (3)

54. (4)

55. (2)

56. (1)

57. (3)

58. (4)

59. (1)

60. (4)

61. (4)

62. (4)

63. (2)

64. (3)

65. (2)

66. (1)

67. (4)

68. (2)

69. (4)

70. (2)

71. (3)

72. (2)

73. (2)

74. (1)

75. (2)

76. (4)

77. (4)

78. (3)

79. (2)

80. (1)

81. (2)

82. (3)

83. (3)

84. (2)

85. (2)

86. (1)

87. (4)

88. (1)

89. (1)

90. (1)

TEST - 2 (Paper-I)

JEE Main-2014_Test-3 (Paper-I) - Code-A.pdf

Documents

Transcript of JEE Main-2014_Test-3 (Paper-I) - Code-A.pdf